题目材料
Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attributed to "the effects of labor." For Locke's intellectual heirs it was only a short step to the "labor theory of value," whose formulators held that 100 percent of the value of any product is generated by labor (the human work needed to produce goods) and that therefore the employer who appropriates any part of the product's value as profit is practicing theft. Although human effort is required to produce goods for the consumer market, effort is also invested in making capital goods (tools, machines, etc.), which are used to facilitate the production of consumer goods. In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods. Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods. Moreover, part of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods-a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most effectively counter the author's criticism of Locke at the end of the passage?
- ALocke was unfamiliar with the labor theory of value as it was formulated by his intellectual heirs.
- BIn Locke's day, there was no possibility of ordinary workers becoming shareholders or pension beneficiaries.
- CDuring Locke's lifetime, capital goods did not make a significant productive contribution to the economy.
- DThe precise statistical calculation of theproductive contributions of labor and capital goods is not possible without computers.
- EThe terms "capital goods"and "consumer goods"were coined by modern economists and do not appear in Locke's writings.
显示答案
正确答案: C